Posted by angel on August 13, 2008 at 12:35:00:
In Reply to: On the contrary, this issue of whether to be circumcised after the manner of Moses was raised by Paul who disputation with certain men (pharisees) who came down from Judaea who taught posted by cruiser on August 12, 2008 at 17:06:47:
Thanks for the refresher.
I don't mean to change the subject, but I thought that Peter and James agreed with Paul...for instance in verse 11 Peter acknowledges that not only do the Gentiles not need to become like Jews to be saved, but conversely we, the Jews, need to be saved as they, the Gentiles, and that the works of the Law for salvation will not even aid a Jew.
And in verses 15-17, James's use of Amos's prophecy concerning Gentiles in God's kingdom does not equate the church with the messianic kingdom, making them one. James doesn't say that the church is fulfilling the prophecy but that what is happening in the church does agree with what will happen later in the kingdom.
James clarifies this point by changing Amos's words "in that day" to "after this", which suggest that after the the church age God will restore the kingdom, wherein the redeemed Gentiles will fully share God's blessing.
I was taught that James authored one of the earliest books of the New Testament (Epistle of James) and addressed it to the 12 scattered tribes.
I am not a scholar in the Bible as you are, I would say I am a new student in studying God's word.